Introduction

Taylor Series are a remarkable piece of mathematical machinery that every aspiring theoretical physicist should know about! The reason they are so powerful is because their purpose is to transform an awkward function into a nice, polynomial one.

They are also useful in providing the rigor required to say that sin⁡(x)≈tan⁡(x)≈x\sin(x) \approx \tan(x) \approx x, a common hand-wavy trick that makes physicists get on mathematicians' nerves.

Definition & Intuition

Given an nn-times differentiable function f(x)f(x), the polynomial

Pn(x)=∑k=0nf(k)(a)k!(x−a)k=f(a)+f′(a)1!(x−a)+f′′(a)2!(x−a)2+⋯+f(n)(a)n!(x−a)nP_n(x) = \sum_{k=0}^{n} \frac{f^{(k)}(a)}{k!}(x - a)^k = f(a) + \frac{f'(a)}{1!}(x-a) + \frac{f''(a)}{2!}(x-a)^2 + \cdots + \frac{f^{(n)}(a)}{n!}(x-a)^n

is called a Taylor Polynomial, and its limit as you add infinitely many terms,

S(x)=lim⁡n→∞Pn(x)=∑k=0∞f(k)(a)k!(x−a)kS(x) = \lim_{n \to \infty} P_n(x) = \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \frac{f^{(k)}(a)}{k!}(x - a)^k

is called the Taylor Series of the function f(x)f(x) centered around x=ax = a.

If S(x)S(x) converges and equals f(x)f(x) everywhere, it is said that the Taylor Expansion of f(x)f(x) is S(x)S(x).

Maclaurin Series

When a=0a = 0 (i.e. the expansion is centered around the origin), the Taylor Expansion is called the Maclaurin Expansion.

To get an intuition of how this works, consider f(x)=sin⁡(x)f(x) = \sin(x). Close to the origin, the graph of sin⁡(x)\sin(x) looks very similar to the linear function y=xy = x. The reason for their similarity is that their first derivatives match near the origin: differentiating sin⁡(x)\sin(x) gives cos⁡(x)\cos(x), and at x=0x = 0, cos⁡(0)=1\cos(0) = 1 — the same as the slope of y=xy = x.

Can we improve on this? Since sin⁡(x)\sin(x) is an odd function (sin⁡(−x)=−sin⁡(x)\sin(-x) = -\sin(x)), our polynomial approximation must also be odd, ruling out all even powers of xx. Our next best guess is to add a cubic term: y=x−cx3y = x - cx^3. Differentiating:

y′=1−3cx2,y′′=−6cx,y′′′=−6cy' = 1 - 3cx^2, \quad y'' = -6cx, \quad y''' = -6c

For y=sin⁡(x)y = \sin(x) at x=0x = 0:

y′=cos⁡(0)=1,y′′=−sin⁡(0)=0,y′′′=−cos⁡(0)=−1y' = \cos(0) = 1, \quad y'' = -\sin(0) = 0, \quad y''' = -\cos(0) = -1

For the third derivatives to match, we need c=16c = \dfrac{1}{6}, giving us y=x−x36y = x - \dfrac{x^3}{6}.

And that's the core idea of Taylor Series! Each time we match a higher derivative, our polynomial approximates the original function better and better. To model the function around some point x=ax = a instead of x=0x = 0, compute the derivatives at aa and replace each xkx^k with (x−a)k(x - a)^k.

Common Taylor Series

Binomial Expansion

You might have learned this in school and be thinking "this isn't a Taylor Series!" — and you're right, but since these two ideas share many similar principles, it's fitting to discuss them together.

Given a binomial raised to a power, its expanded form is:

(x+a)n=∑k=0n(nk)an−kxk(x + a)^n = \sum_{k=0}^{n} \binom{n}{k} a^{n-k} x^k

where (nk)=n!k!(n−k)!\dbinom{n}{k} = \dfrac{n!}{k!(n-k)!} is the binomial coefficient.

To see why this is true, consider x=0x = 0. On the RHS, all terms vanish except the k=0k = 0 term, leaving (n0)an=an\dbinom{n}{0}a^n = a^n, which matches the LHS. Taking derivatives of both sides and evaluating at x=0x = 0 likewise confirms that each successive term is correct — the binomial expansion can be understood as a Taylor polynomial.

Trigonometric Functions

Here are the classic Taylor Expansions of trigonometric functions:

sin⁡(x)=∑k=0∞(−1)k(2k+1)!x2k+1\sin(x) = \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^k}{(2k+1)!} x^{2k+1}
cos⁡(x)=∑k=0∞(−1)k(2k)!x2k\cos(x) = \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^k}{(2k)!} x^{2k}

What about tan(x)?

The Taylor expansion for tan⁡(x)\tan(x) involves Bernoulli numbers — a rabbit hole best left for mathematicians. To expand tan⁡(x)\tan(x) in practice, just take the first few derivatives directly rather than trying to find a general expression.

Exponential & Logarithmic Functions

ex=∑k=0∞1k!xke^x = \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{k!} x^k
ln⁡ ⁣(11−x)=∑k=1∞1kxk\ln\!\left(\frac{1}{1-x}\right) = \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{k} x^k

Note that the logarithmic series starts at k=1k = 1 to avoid division by zero.

Power Series

A power series P(x)P(x) has the form:

P(x)=∑k=0∞akxk=a0+a1x+a2x2+a3x3+⋯P(x) = \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} a_k x^k = a_0 + a_1 x + a_2 x^2 + a_3 x^3 + \cdots

where each coefficient aka_k is a constant. A familiar example is the power series of 11−x\dfrac{1}{1-x}, where all coefficients equal 1:

11−x=∑k=0∞xk=1+x+x2+x3+⋯\frac{1}{1-x} = \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} x^k = 1 + x + x^2 + x^3 + \cdots

Power series appear throughout higher mathematics and physics, from generating functions in combinatorics to solving the Schrödinger equation for hydrogen-like atoms. One typically uses them to construct solutions to equations by plugging in the series and deducing what the coefficients must be.

Example — Simple Harmonic Motion: Consider the SHM equation y′′=−ω2yy'' = -\omega^2 y. Let y=∑k=0∞aktky = \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} a_k t^k be a solution. Substituting and reindexing:

∑k=0∞ak+2(k+2)(k+1)xk=−ω2∑k=0∞aktk\sum_{k=0}^{\infty} a_{k+2}(k+2)(k+1)x^k = -\omega^2 \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} a_k t^k

Matching coefficients of xkx^k gives the recurrence:

ak+2=−ω2(k+2)(k+1)aka_{k+2} = -\frac{\omega^2}{(k+2)(k+1)} a_k

Since this connects coefficients two indices apart, we get two independent families — one for even kk and one for odd kk:

a2n=(−ω2)n(2n)!a0,a2n+1=(−ω2)n(2n+1)!a1a_{2n} = \frac{(-\omega^2)^n}{(2n)!} a_0, \qquad a_{2n+1} = \frac{(-\omega^2)^n}{(2n+1)!} a_1

Substituting back into the power series and recognizing the resulting sums as the Taylor series for cosine and sine:

y(t)=a0cos⁡(ωt)+a1ωsin⁡(ωt)y(t) = a_0 \cos(\omega t) + \frac{a_1}{\omega} \sin(\omega t)

Applications

Approximations

For the power series of 11−x\dfrac{1}{1-x}, successive terms differ by a factor of xx. When xx is very small (e.g. x=0.01x = 0.01), each additional term contributes less and less. In physics, measurements are only useful up to a certain precision, so we can approximate:

11−x≈1+x\frac{1}{1-x} \approx 1 + x

Other famous small-angle or small-xx approximations include:

sin⁡(x)≈x\sin(x) \approx x
cos⁡(x)≈1−x22\cos(x) \approx 1 - \frac{x^2}{2}
ex≈1+xe^x \approx 1 + x
(1+x)n≈1+nx(1 + x)^n \approx 1 + nx

All of which only hold when ∣x∣≪1|x| \ll 1.

Problems & Practice

Problem 1: Show that both of the following definitions of exe^x are equivalent:

ex=lim⁡n→∞(1+xn)ne^x = \lim_{n \to \infty}\left(1 + \frac{x}{n}\right)^n

ex=∑n=0∞xnn!=1+x+x22!+x33!+⋯e^x = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{x^n}{n!} = 1 + x + \frac{x^2}{2!} + \frac{x^3}{3!} + \cdots

Problem 2: Find the Taylor expansion of arctan⁡x\arctan x.

Problem 3: Consider the Taylor expansion of ln⁡ ⁣(11−x)\ln\!\left(\dfrac{1}{1-x}\right).

(a) Does the Taylor expansion match the function well everywhere? What happens as you add more and more terms near the boundaries?

(b) Under what circumstances will the series converge? (Hint: think about ratios of successive terms.)

(c) Find the range of values xx for which the infinite series converges. This is called the radius of convergence. (Careful about the boundary inequalities!)

Problem 4: Prove Euler's Formula:

eix=cos⁡(x)+isin⁡(x)e^{ix} = \cos(x) + i\sin(x)

where ii is the imaginary unit satisfying i2=−1i^2 = -1.

Solutions

Solution 1: Apply the binomial theorem to (1+xn)n\left(1 + \dfrac{x}{n}\right)^n and simplify as n→∞n \to \infty to recover the series definition.

Solution 2: Differentiating repeatedly and matching derivatives at x=0x = 0:

arctan⁡x=∑k=0∞(−1)k2k+1x2k+1\arctan x = \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^k}{2k+1} x^{2k+1}

Solution 3:

(a) The expansion diverges at the sides; it only converges on some central interval.

(b) The series converges when successive terms get smaller, i.e. ∣Tn+1Tn∣<1\left|\dfrac{T_{n+1}}{T_n}\right| < 1:

∣1n+1xn+11nxn∣=∣nn+1x∣<1\left|\frac{\frac{1}{n+1}x^{n+1}}{\frac{1}{n}x^n}\right| = \left|\frac{n}{n+1}x\right| < 1

(c) Taking n→∞n \to \infty in the inequality above gives ∣x∣<1|x| < 1, i.e. −1<x<1-1 < x < 1. Checking the boundary x=−1x = -1: the series becomes ∑(−1)k+1k\sum \dfrac{(-1)^{k+1}}{k}, which converges (to ln⁡2\ln 2). So the full radius of convergence is:

−1≤x<1\boxed{-1 \leq x < 1}

Solution 4: Use the Taylor expansion of exe^x and substitute x→ixx \to ix:

eix=∑k=0∞(ix)kk!e^{ix} = \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \frac{(ix)^k}{k!}

Separating real and imaginary parts recovers the Taylor series for cos⁡x\cos x and sin⁡x\sin x respectively.

StatusSourceProblem NameDifficultyTags
AIMEVery Hard
Show TagsCombinatorics, Recursion

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